Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 01:11
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Can you explain the difference between “mi piace” and “mi piacciono” in Italian?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why is Jack Smith arguing that presidents should not have full immunities as Trump is requesting?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?